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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q34-Q39):
NEW QUESTION # 34
An 18-year-old man presents to your clinic with a history of intermittent, dull, achy pain on the left side of his scrotum, and he has now noted left scrotal enlargement. On examination, you note a swelling in the left scrotum when he is standing that disappears when he is supine. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A varicocele is a dilatation of the pampiniform plexus that presents with a "bag of worms" appearance, worsens with standing, and improves when lying down. It is most common on the left side due to anatomical drainage differences.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Scrotal Disorders:
"Varicoceles often present with a dull, aching pain and scrotal swelling that worsens when upright and disappears when supine." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Urology:
"Candidates must recognize and diagnose varicocele by physical exam findings and typical symptom history." Cryptorchidism (A) refers to undescended testes. Torsion (B) presents acutely with severe pain. Hydrocele (C) transilluminates and is not posture-dependent. "Spermatocyte" (D) is not a clinical diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A mother brings her 4-week-old daughter to your office because she is concerned about the lesion shown in the attached image. Which one of the following is the most appropriate advice to give the mother?
Answer: E
Explanation:
In a 4-week-old infant, a common vascular lesion such as a nevus simplex ("salmon patch") or a superficial infantile hemangioma is a frequent benign finding. Nevus simplex lesions are flat, pink-red patches commonly located on the eyelids, glabella, or nape of the neck and typically fade spontaneously over the first
1-2 years of life. Superficial infantile hemangiomas may initially enlarge but later undergo spontaneous involution during early childhood. In the absence of concerning features (rapid ulceration, functional impairment, large segmental distribution, or associated anomalies), reassurance and observation are appropriate.
There is no indication of trauma requiring child protective services, nor signs of a bleeding disorder. These common neonatal vascular lesions are not associated with increased melanoma risk. Routine dermatology referral is unnecessary unless the lesion is atypical or complicated.
MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing benign neonatal skin findings from pathology, providing parental reassurance, and avoiding unnecessary investigations or referrals while recognizing features that would warrant further evaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A 24-year-old woman presents with rapidly increasing lower leg pain. Less than 24 hours ago, she fell off her bicycle and had some minor abrasions. On examination, she is in severe pain and appears anxious. Local examination of her leg reveals mild discoloration with marked tenderness but no swelling in her calf. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Rapid progression of pain out of proportion to exam, systemic symptoms (anxiety), and skinchanges without major swelling are classic for necrotizing fasciitis-a surgical emergency. Discoloration and extreme tenderness should raise immediate concern.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine / Surgery:
"Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain, systemic toxicity, rapid progression, and early skin changes (discoloration). Pain out of proportion is a key clue." MCCQE1 Objectives (Emergency Medicine > 51-1: Soft Tissue Infections):
"Candidates must recognize necrotizing fasciitis and initiate urgent surgical consultation." Plantaris rupture (A) is benign and localized. DVT (B) is more gradual and often with swelling. Cellulitis (C) progresses more slowly and is less painful. Baker's cyst (D) causes posterior knee pain, not severe systemic illness.
NEW QUESTION # 37
A patient's mother comes to you with a prospective cohort study linking autism to the measles, mumps and rubella vaccine. After reviewing the study carefully, you question the results because of problems with the study design and execution. Which one of the following sources of error would be most important in the study design or execution?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Recruiting participants from an autism seminar introduces selection bias. This non-random selection increases the likelihood of overestimating associations due to pre-existing beliefs or exposures in that subgroup.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Epidemiology:
"Selection bias occurs when participants are not representative of the general population, as in recruitment from disease-specific support groups." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 65-2: Study Design and Appraisal):
"Candidates must recognize sources of bias in epidemiologic studies, including selection bias due to non- representative recruitment." Recall bias (D) is more of a concern in retrospective studies. Sponsorship (B) may create perception bias but is not a flaw in methodology itself. Standard error reporting (A) is normal. Not accounting for confounders (E) matters but recruitment source is more directly biasing.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of back, neck, and shoulder pain sustained from a workplace incident 4 years ago. He is under observation by a multidisciplinary pain clinic, and his next appointment is not for another 4 weeks. He does not report any recent change in his symptoms.
His medications are as follows:
Acetaminophen
1000 mg orally 4 times daily
Naproxen
500 mg orally twice daily
Amitriptyline
25 mg orally at bedtime
* Acetaminophen 1000 mg orally four times daily
* Naproxen 500 mg orally twice daily
* Amitriptyline 25 mg orally at bedtime
The patient has not taken his medications for several weeks because he thinks they are not working. He requests a prescription for oxycodone because he tried some that a friend sold him, and it worked very well.
After completing an assessment and providing counseling, which one of the following is the best next step?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Given the request for opioids and history of non-prescribed opioid use (oxycodone obtained from a friend), the next appropriate step is to conduct a urine drug screen. This helps assess current substance use and guides safe prescribing decisions.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pain Management and Addiction Medicine:
"Urine drug screening is recommended before initiating opioid therapy or when there is suspicion of substance misuse. A history of using non-prescribed opioids mandates assessment for opioid use disorder and further risk stratification." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Chronic Pain:
"Candidates must assess for opioid misuse and dependence before initiating opioid therapy. Urine drug testing is a standard tool in this assessment." Providing naloxone (A) may be appropriate later if opioids are prescribed, but the priority is evaluation.
Cannabis (B) is not first-line and lacks controlled evidence in chronic pain. Tramadol (D) is an opioid-like agent and not appropriate until misuse risk is evaluated.
NEW QUESTION # 39
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